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Exam Code: HP2-Z15
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP E-Series Networking Products)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which device provides dedicated bandwidth to every connected workstation but is only capable of
forwarding data within the VLAN in which the traffic originates?
A. router
B. Layer 2 switch
C. Layer 3 switch
D. hub
Answer: B

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NO.2 If you select a fiber optic cable for the transmission medium, you must consider the mode for the
fiber cable. Fiber optic cables can be divided into two broad categories. What are they?
A. trimode and singlemode
B. quadmode and singlemode
C. automode and singlemode
D. multimode and singlemode
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which type of network architecture conforms to user, application, and organizational needs, allowing
customers to maximize network productivity and reduce complexity?
A. unified network
B. secure mobility network
C. open network
D. adaptive network
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which HP E-Series switches require the customer to purchase a separate power supply?
A. all modular switches
B. all E8200 zl or E5400 zl switches
C. all E8200 zl or E5400 zl switches sold without bundled modules
D. all switches that support PoE
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the fastest Gigabit Ethernet available?
A. 1 Gb
B. 5 Gb
C. 10 Gb
D. 20 Gb
Answer: C

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NO.6 HP offers two form factors for its switches. What are they?
A. fixed hub and modular
B. fixed port and modular
C. fixed port and modem
D. free port and modular
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which product line should you use for your lead when engaging a customer who likes the appeal of a
lifetime warranty?
A. S series
B. V series
C. A series
D. E series
Answer: D

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NO.8 You must approach an enterprise customer with a history of deploying single-vendor solutions and a
preference for a unified approach with a single operating system. Which product line should you use as
your lead?
A. V series
B. S series
C. E series
D. A series
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which type of HP E-Series switches includes all of the features necessary for an access-layer switch
in an Adaptive Network, including Layer 2 switch, dynamic routing, convergence, management, and
security?
A. Layer 2 managed switches
B. ProVision ASIC switches
C. Lite Layer 3 switches
D. web-managed switches
Answer: B

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NO.10 What is the definition of a network?
A. a group of two or more computer systems linked together
B. a group of three or more computer systems linked together
C. a group of four or more computer systems linked together
D. a group of five or more computer systems linked together
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which information does a Layer 2 switch use to determine the correct port on which to forward traffic?
A. destination IP address
B. source IP address
C. destination MAC address
D. source MAC address
Answer: C

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NO.12 A company ¯ s p ri va t e ne t w o r k i s d i v i ded i n t o seve r a l subne t s . W h i ch dev i ces can a ll o w tr a ffi c t o fl o w
between the subnets? (Select two.)
A. router
B. hub
C. standalone access point
D. Layer 2 switch
E. Layer 3 switch
Answer: A,E

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NO.13 Which two elements of the HP Networking strategy help to lower customer TCO? (Select two.)
A. converged functionality
B. robust security solutions
C. advanced technology development
D. unified wired/wireless access
E. layer 3 switch support
Answer: A,D

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NO.14 What are some of the benefits that a customer gains from a network that is unified from the core to
the access layer with the ProVision ASIC family?
A. managed infrastructure, unified management, and unified support
B. unified infrastructure, unified management, and enterprise support
C. unified infrastructure, unified routing, and unified support
D. unified infrastructure, unified management, and unified support
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which HP Networking product line features smart-managed switches?
A. A series
B. E series
C. V series
D. S series Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-D11
Exam Name: HP (Designing HP Virtualization Solutions [2010])
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 LACCD is the largest community college district in the United States, educating more than 130,000
students at nine campuses spread throughout 36 cities in the greater Los Angeles area.
What are some of the business requirements that led LACCD to migrate from a distributed
desktop PC architecture to an HP Client Virtualization Solution? (Select two.)
A. Educational institutions like LACCD must meet a broad range of requirements defined by users.
B. LACCD was in the midst of a downsizing and consolidation initiative.
C. LACCD could dictate technology capabilities from the top down.
D. School administrators at LACCD use a wide variety of applications where security is essential.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Which HP StorageWorks products or solutions provide virtualized scale-up storage? (Select two.)
A. X9000 Network Storage Systems
B. HPStorageWorks 4400 Scalable NAS File Services
C. X5000 Storage Systems
D. P4000 SAN Solutions
E. Enterprise Virtual Array (EVA)
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Product benefits often connect directly to customer business requirements that
represent opportunities for virtualization. Some examples of this include such things as accelerating
growth, reducing costs, lessening risk, and improving manageability and security.
Match each requirement to the way that virtualization helps a business achieve it.
Answer:

NO.4 What are indications that a business needs virtualization? (Select two.)
A. applications and business services not being delivered on time
B. IT operations that are minimally impacted by business fluctuations
C. under-utilized IT infrastructure
D. reductions in maintenance windows
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 An EVA solution, currently managed by an Array-Based Management (ABM), will be expanded to a
Continuous Access solution. Which prerequisite must be met in order to implement the solution?
A. register SVSP Continuous Access licenses inCommandView EVA
B. install HP Insight Remote Support Standard on physical server
C. register Business Copy licenses in CommandView EVA
D. switchCommandView EVA to Server-Based Management (SBM)
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-E23
Exam Name: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which fabric topology is the most fault-resilient?
A. Ring Fabric
B. Fully Meshed Fabric
C. Cascaded Fabric
D. Core-edge Fabric
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer is interested in purchasing a new HP ProLiant DL580 G5 server. How many processor
modules can this server scale to?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which product is required to manage an HP Storage works Enterprise Virtual Array solution?
A. HP Storage works Secure Manager
B. HP Storage works Command View
C. HP Storage Essentials SRM Software Suite
D. HP High Availability Fabric Manger
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which integrated Lights-Out (iLO) 2 features are enabled by an Advanced Pack license on a ProLiantDL
series sever? (Select two.)
A. Virtual Power Button
B. Virtual KVM Graphic Console
C. Virtual Media
D. Power Regulator forProLiant
E. Remote Serial Console
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 Which feature is common to all HP Blade System c-Class servers?
A. Inter Xeon processors
B. SAS hard drives
C. iLO 2 Standard Blade Edition
D. internal USB connectors
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y32
Exam Name: HP (Design and Troubleshooting Open Standard Networks)
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Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
You install two E5400 zl Series switches and connect them with a two-port static trunk. All hosts on both
switches are in VLAN 20. However, some hosts on Core 1 cannot ping some hosts on Core 2 and vice
versa. All hosts can ping all hosts on their own switch. Event logs on the two switches do not show
significant errors. What should you do to determine the cause of this connectivity issue? (Select three.)
A. Use traceroute to determine which device is dropping the ping packets.
B. Verify the trunk configuration on each core switch.
C. Change the IP address for the default VLAN on Core 2 so that it is in the same subnet as the default
VLAN on Core 1.
D. Verify physical connectivity between the switches.
E. Use LLDP to check the identities of the devices and their neighbors.
Answer: BDE

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NO.2 Which step will provide helpful information about the issue?
A. Analyze the port statistics for the client you are pinging from.
B. Compare the arp table entries on the client when it works and when it does not.
C. Analyze the port statistics for the switch to which the client is connected.
D. Analyze the port statistics for all clients in VLAN 2 when the problem occurs.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are working with a customer who has reported connectivity issues on a specific VLAN. All of their
clients were previously in VLAN1 until VLAN10 was added in order to limit the amount of broadcast traffic.
Now, the clients on VLAN10 cannot reach the Internet. These clients cannot ping clients on VLAN1, but
can successfully ping the default gateway. Which information will help you troubleshoot this problem?
(Select two.)
A. network topology map
B. uptime of the network devices
C. network IP addressing scheme
D. names of all VLANS
E. a list of the NTP servers on the network
Answer: AC

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NO.4 Based on these basic facts, what can you "rule out" as possible causes of this problem? (Select three.)
A. the external gateway having no route to VLAN 2
B. misconfigured clients in VLAN1
C. a transient layer 1 issue
D. the firewall enabled on the client causing connectivity issues
E. a loop in VLAN1
Answer: ACD

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. Which action can you take that will help you
discover this new link?
A. Investigate switch syslog information for gateway changes.
B. Compare route tables of both routers.
C. Review LLDP information on subnet 20 root bridge.
D. Follow path cost to root from subnet 20.
E. Initiate a traceroute from both subnets.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You install new category 6a home run network cables for all users. You test a random sampling of the
cables, and they all pass. Users are complaining about dropped packets, slowness, and other intermittent
results. What is the best tool to use for initial troubleshooting?
A. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
B. Time Domain Reflectometer (TDR)
C. Packet Analyzer
D. HP Intelligent Communications Manager (ICM)
Answer: B

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. Which link transitions are blocked on subnet
20?
A. link from 20b to 20c
B. link from 20a to 20c
C. link from 20a to 20b
D. link from 20c to 30b
Answer: C

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. What is the impact of the user's actions?
A. Internet connectivity to subnet 20 users is broken.
B. STP Root Bridge of Subnet 20 moves.
C. All Subnet 20 traffic is routed through Subnet 30.
D. STP alternate path selection remains unchanged.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
Which issue does the Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) show?
A. out of phase
B. extensive attenuation
C. loss of [optical] signal
D. bend or kink in the optical cable
E. low frequency roll-off C:\Pasban Work\Cert Paper
Exams\HP\HP0-Y32\HP0-Y32-A-Extracted\HP0-Y32-A-Extracted\HP0-Y32-A\23.JPG
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
You need to limit the amount of broadcast traffic in this customer's network. In order to do so, you add a
second VLAN, VLAN2 (10.0.1.0/24). Now, clients on VLAN2 cannot reach the Internet and cannot ping
clients on VLAN1. They can successfully ping the default gateway (10.0.1.1). What should you do first to
determine the cause of the problem?
A. Disable broadcast limiting on the core switch.
B. Check the ISP's firewall settings and modify accordingly.
C. Request the configuration of the network devices.
D. Request a network trace from the ISP.
E. Get the MAC address table of the network devices.
Answer: C

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Exam Name: HP (HP Imaging and Printing Assessment and Design)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which elements are correctly paired with their respective steps in the flow as provided in the
Assessment Methodologies & Measures Overview? (Select two.)
A. Assess - TCO Analysis
B. Analyze - Company Tour
C. Analyze - TCO Analysis
D. Qualify - Business Case
E. Qualify - Company Tour
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 Which elements are correctly paired with their respective steps in the flow as provided in the
Assessment Methodologies & Measures Overview.? (Select two.)
A. Assess - Company Tour
B. Assess - Discovery & Design
C. Analyze - Managed Environment Assessment
D. Design - Business Case
E. Analyze - Business Case
Answer: A, B

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Elements of a Corporate Strategy ? (Select two.)
A. The objective
is the aspiration of an organization.
B. The mission
is the quantification or specification of a goal.
C. The goal
is the general statement of aim or purpose.
D. The strategy
is a long-term direction or measure.
E. The vision
is the overriding purpose
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the four steps in the Assessment Methodologies & Measures Overview?
A. Search, Assess, Sell, Service
B. Qualify, Assess, Analyze, Design
C. Interview, Discover, Define, Design
D. Qualify, Assess, Discover, Design
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are on a company tour at customer's site and you notice that stacks of consumables are placed
next to printing devices or in separate rooms. What are possible pain points/risks of this practice? (Select
two.)
A. risk of expiring/non-compatible consumables
B. high storage costs
C. lack of remote device management
D. insufficient service level agreements
Answer: A, B

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Exam Code: HP2-E42
Exam Name: HP (HP Visual Collaboration Technical)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which function does the HPVC Router perform?
A. system administration and component management
B. efficient transport of A/V streams
C. trans-coding to legacy systems
D. phone bridging to the corporate telephone system
Answer: C

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NO.2 What do network settings in the Desktop configuration determine?
A. which servers, ports and proxies the Router will use when connecting to meetings
B. which servers, ports and proxies the Gateway will use when connecting to meetings
C. which servers, ports and proxies the Desktop will use when connecting to meetings
D. which bandwidth the servers, ports and proxies will use when connecting to meetings
Answer: C

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NO.3 For the Visual Collaboration Manager configuration, where should you make network changes?
A. from the Visual Collaboration Manager configuration page
B. directly on the Portal server from the shell menu
C. from the Portal Management page
D. from the Visual Collaboration Management admin panel
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statements are true about the Management Portal? (Select two.)
A. It administers all devices and user accounts.
B. It is the primary Media Router and hosts the layer routing, databases and administration applications.
C. It provides up to 100 ports for connections and can be expanded as necessary.
D. It provides web proxy functionality, enabling web browsers usage for general web access.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Before deploying the H.323 Gateway, what must you do first?
A. Add a Gateway account using the Admin page on the Portal.
B. Add a Gateway component using the Super account on the Portal.
C. Add a Gateway license using the Super account on the Portal.
D. Add a Gateway component using the Admin account on the Portal.
Answer: D

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NO.6 How do you access the Portal Maintenance page?
A. from the Portal Server Shell account
B. from the Manager Admin page, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
C. from the Portal Super Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
D. from the Portal Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which Visual Collaboration product can deliver HD720p60/1080p30?
A. Visual Collaboration Desktop
B. Visual Collaboration Room 220
C. Visual Collaboration Portal and Gateway
D. Visual Collaboration Room 100
Answer: C

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NO.8 How do you access the Portal Maintenance page.?
A. from the Portal Server Shell account
B. from the Manager Admin page, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
C. from the Portal Super Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
D. from the Portal Admin account, by selecting the Settings tab and then Maintenance
Answer: B

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NO.9 From the Database Maintenance tab, you are unable to do what?
A. back up and restore the database
B. upload a previously saved copy of the database
C. upgrade the database
D. delete the current database
Answer: A

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NO.10 What should you do when you cannot resolve an issue?
A. Attempt to format and recover the user s operating system.
B. Generate a Diagnostics report (zip file) and forward to the next level of support analyst.
C. Attempt to un-install and re-install the software.
D. Attempt to replace suspected faulty hardware.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-Z20
Exam Name: HP (S-Series Networking Product Authorization)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 34 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which flow control options can TippingPoint Intrusion Protection System (IPS) apply to traffic, based on
policy? (Select three.)
A. rate-limit
B. block
C. return to source
D. fragment the traffic
E. permit/alert
F. reroute to another destination
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 What are capabilities of the TippingPoint Security Management System (SMS)? (Select two.)
A. management of additional SMS devices
B. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
C. event reporting for any managed IPS devices
D. management of other non-TippingPoint devices
E. Digital Vaccine updates
Answer: C,E

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NO.3 Which features distinguish TippingPoint Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) products from each other.?
(Select two.)
A. how they access the SSH CLI of the IPS
B. Policy Management using segments/segment groups
C. number of segments
D. inspection throughput
E. how they access the Web Interface (LSM)
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: HP0-M43
Exam Name: HP (HP Service Manager 9.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 113 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which capability word is required to grant operator access to Crystal Report.?
A. ReportAdmin
B. ODBC
C. data administrator
D. SysAdmin
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the goal of Knowledge Management?
A. to integrate with Interaction, Incident, and Problem Management so that users are able to search for
and use knowledge from existing incidents or problems while attempting to resolve a new incident or
problem
B. to enable organizations to improve the quality of management decision-making by ensuring that
reliable and secure information and data is available throughout the service lifecycle
C. to ensure the right information is delivered to the appropriate place or person at the right time to enable
an informed decision
D. to define a set of principles and practices that enable organizations to improve service levels for
customers, gain operational efficiencies, and increase the organization's value to their company
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statements are true about Configuration Management? (Select two.)
A. Configuration Management is the process responsible for maintaining information about assets
required to deliver an IT service, including their relationships.
B. Configuration Management is the process responsible for tracking and reporting the value and
ownership of financial assets throughout their lifecycle.
C. Configuration Management minimizes the number of quality and compliance issues caused by
improper configuration and services and assets.
D. Configuration Management is the process responsible for maintaining information about CIs required
to deliver an IT service, including their relationships.
E. Configuration Management supports two ITIL processes: Incident Management and Problem
Management.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which ITIL V3 process does Service Manager provide to configure a catalog from which users can
request goods and services, an approval engine that processes the request, and which allows for
procurement and delivery of approved goods and services?
A. Change Management
B. Service Request Catalog
C. Request Fulfillment
D. Service Management
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which debugging parameters are typically used to debug performance issues? (Select three.)
A. RTM:3
B. sm -debugperformance
C. sm -rundiagnostics
D. debugdbquery:999
E. sqldebug:1
F. sqltrace:2
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.6 Given the Service Manager RDBMS user has the right to create tables, which action in Service
Manager translates directly into a SQL create statement?
A. creating a new dbdict
B. creating a new field in an existing dbdict
C. renaming a dbdict
D. renaming an existing field in an existing dbdict
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which debugging parameter is used to debug Web Services interfaces in Service Manager?
A. debughttp:1
B. debugjs:1
C. debugws:1
D. debugdbquery:1
Answer: A

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NO.8 What are the three main access layers on which security can be set in Service Manager? (Select three.)
A. Application Access
B. Database Access
C. Functional Access
D. Process Access
E. Module Access
F. Code Access
G. System Access
Answer: A,C,G

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NO.9 What are the features of the embedded Release Control Change Calendar? (Select three.)
A. used for approvals
B. gives visibility to the ITIL's concept of a Forward Schedule of Changes (FSC)
C. is a stand-alone Change Management application
D. interacts with UCMDB
E. interacts with the Change Management application of Service Manager
F. can only be accessed via the Windows client
G. is able to check resource availability
Answer: B,E,G

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NO.10 Which connectors are available for Connect-It? (Select three.)
A. HP Service Desk Web Services Connector
B. HP Service Manager Web Client Connector
C. HP Universal CMDB Connector (XML)
D. Active Directory Connector
E. HP Service Center Connector
F. Service Manager Connector
Answer: C,E,F

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Exam Code: HP2-E39
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Converged Infrastruture Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 What is the benefit to both you and your customer of using the Converged Infrastructure Maturity Model
(CI-MM)?
A. It gives the customer access to an exclusive set of benchmarks and best practices of their competitors
derived from primary research conducted by the HP Sales and Marketing Division.
B. It allows you to identify key pain points and top IT infrastructure gaps, enabling you to build an
actionable plan toward a Converged Infrastructure.
C. It provides video demonstrations that outline specific customer benefits that can be derived when the
solution is deployed in an actual customer environment.
D. It is a self-assessment tool that the customer can use as a replacement for extensive consulting
engagements.
Answer: B

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NO.2 DRAG DROP
Arrange the boxes in order to build the CI-MM five stages of maturity.
Answer:

NO.3 If your customer needs to improve connectivity and bandwidth allocation online, which HP technology
would you recommend.?
A. HP Virtual Request Pools
B. HP Matrix Operating Environment
C. HP Data Center Smart Grid
D. HP FlexFabric Network
Answer: D

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NO.4 .HP's StoreOnce D2D backup system offers which significant advantages over traditional tape solutions?
(Select two.)
A. Acts as a long term archive for infrequently accessed data
B. Offers huge savings in tape media and tape drive costs
C. Allows media to be moved offsite to 3rd party service providers
D. Provides faster backup and recovery windows
E. Provides job security for back-up administrators.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 The Converged Infrastructure Maturity Model process helps to evaluate your customer's IT organization
by investigating the resources used to plan, manage, and improve the delivery of IT services to their
business. Which domain is this?
A. Technology and Architecture
B. Culture and Staff
C. Demand, Supply and IT Governance
D. Management Tools and Processes
Answer: A

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NO.6 Once the customer understands the potential impact of HP Converged Infrastructure, which HP
Network service would be the most appropriate for helping the customer build a strategy and a business
case for adopting Converged Infrastructure?
A. Business Benefits Roadmap
B. Visioning Workshop
C. Assessment Service
D. Packaged Implementation
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the biggest difference between HP Critical Advantage and HP Proactive Select?
A. Critical Advantage includes hardware and software, while Proactive Select only includes hardware.
B. Critical Advantage is integrated with Mission-Critical Partnership, while Proactive Select is not.
C. Critical Advantage includes reactive support, while Proactive Select does not.
D. Proactive Select includes 24x7 Access to HP technical experts, while Critical Advantage does not.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which HP array is well known for reducing storage administration time by 90%?
A. P9500 Disk Array
B. 3PAR Storage
C. Enterprise Virtual Array
D. P4000SAN
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which business benefit will your customers realize by using HP Smart Grid technology?
A. Customers can run multiple protocols and make changes without having to bring down their servers.
B. Customers can use the same architecture to run and manage multiple workloads across servers,
storage and networking.
C. Customers can extend the life of their data centers while using much less power and cooling.
D. Customers can decrease the time-to-delivery of technology services from months to hours.
Answer: C

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NO.10 As part of the fundamental set of solutions for HP Instant-On Enterprise, which solution will help
customers rethink how their company's data is gathered, stored and used?
A. information Optimization
B. Application Transformation
C. Converged Infrastructure
D. Enterprise Security
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP3-C29
Exam Name: HP (HP LaserJet Enterprise M4555 MFP)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which of the HP LaserJet Enterprise M4555 MFP bundles does NOT feature automatic
duplexing?
A. HP M4555
B. HP M4555F
C. HP M4555LN
D. HP M4555SKM
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which features appear on the HP LaserJet Enterprise M4555 MFP control-panel display only
after they have been configured through the Embedded Web Server (EWS) (Select two.)
A. Administration
B. Fax
C. Supplies Status
D. Open from USB
E. Job Status
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is true about the HP LaserJet Enterprise M4555 MFP control panel?
A. It features a USB port on the side for adding third-party solutions.
B. It is a touchscreen color display.
C. It features a built-in control-panel diagnostic utility.
D. It features a text-to-speech accessibility option (English only)
Answer: B

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Reference:http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bizsupport/TechSupport/Document.jsp?objectID=c028099
88&prodSeriesId=4072931

NO.4 On the HP LaserJet Enterprise M4555 MFR firmware is stored on which component(s)?
A. The encrypted hard disk or solid state drive
B. DIMM memory
C. The DC Controller and the ICB
D. The formatter
Answer: C

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NO.5 Why must customers perform a remote firmware upgrade (RFU) after replacing the encrypted
hard drive or the solid state drive?
A. The replacement encrypted hard drive and solid state drive ship without firmware. The latest
version of firmware must be loaded on them after installation.
B. The firmware on the printer must be upgraded to match the firmware version on the
replacement encrypted hard drive or solid state drive.
C. The USB control panel will not recognize the replacement encrypted hard drive or solid state
drive until the device firmware is updated.
D. All replacement encrypted hard drives and solid state drives contain product-introduction
firmware, which must be upgraded during installation.
Answer: D

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NO.6 How many internal USB host ports does the HP LaserJet Enterprise M4555 MFP have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: D

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Reference:http://m.hp.com/uk/en/products/printers/product-detail.do?oid=4072934(see
specifications, 20thline)

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Exam Code: HP3-X06
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Workstation Products)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 20 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Which Intel chipset is featured on an HP Z200 Workstation?
A. 3450
B. 7500
C. GS45 Express
D. Q43 Express
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a key benefit of the HP Z200 Workstation over its predecessor, the HP
xw4600?
A. 3D graphics
B. Energy Star 5.0
C. Gigabit LAN
D. USB 2.0
Answer: B

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Exam Code: MOFF-EN
Exam Name: EXIN (Microsoft Operations Framework Foundation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 Does the Team SMF ensure that someone is ultimately accountable for the work required in
the Plan Phase?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a process within the Service Monitoring and Control SMF?
A. Continuous monitoring
B. Purge event logs
C. Service monitoring requirements
D. Static monitoring definition
Answer: A

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NO.3 Does the concept ision?identify what a project team can accomplish within its
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A. Yes
B. No
Answer: B

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NO.4 What does the Reliability SMF process flow include?
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B. Define service requirements
C. Ensure good service
D. Maintain work instructions
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which SMF has 'Filter the problem' as a process step?
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B. Service Monitoring and Control
C. Operations
D. Problem Management
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 2B0-103
Exam Name: Enterasys Networks (Enterasys Security Systems Engineer-NAC)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-29

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NO.1 What failed action(s) can be specified for the Lock MAC configuration
A. Reject
B. Use User Override
C. User MAC Override
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following are required fields to import a User override from a file?
A. User Name
B. Configuration Template
C. Security Domain
D. All of the Above
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the minimum number of Assessment Servers required to implement end-system assessment?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.4 What type of end systems will not interact with Enterasys Sentinel?
A. Unmanaged PCs (i.e. PCs not under the administrative control of IT operations)
B. Managed PCs (i.e. PCs under the administrative control of IT operations)
C. IP Phones, IP cameras, printer
D. None of the Above
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following information is required for creating a MAC Override?
A. Switch IP address
B. Configuration Template
C. MAC
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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