2014年2月25日星期二

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Exam Code: 1Z0-899
Exam Name: Oracle (Java EE 6 Web Component Developer Certified Expert Exam)
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Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Given the element from the web application deployment descriptor:
<jsp
property
group>
<url
pattern>/main/page1.jsp</url
pattern>
<scripting
invalid>true</scripting
invalid>
</jsp property group>
And given that /main/page1.jsp contains:
<% int i = 12; %>
<b> <%= i %> </b>
What is the result?
A. <b> <b>
B. <b> l2 </b>
C. The JSP fails to execute.
D. <% int i = 12 %>
<b> <%= i % > < b>
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are building a dating service web site. Part of the form to submit a client's profile is a group of radio
buttons for the person's hobbies:
<input type = radio
name = hobbyEnum
value = HIKING > Hiking <br>
<input type = radio
name = hobbyEnum
value = SKING > Sking <br>
<input type = radio
name = hobbyEnum
value = SCUBA > SCUBA <br>
<! - - and more options - - >>
After the user submits this form, a confirmation screen is displayed with these hobbies listed. Assume that
an application-scoped hobbies, holds a map between the hobby enumerated type and the display name.
Which EL code snippet will display Nth element of the user's selected hobbles?
A. ${hobbies [hobbyEnum[N]}
B. ${hobbies [paramValues.hobbyEnum[N]]}
C. ${hobbies [paramValues @ hobbyEnum
@N]
D. ${hobbies.get(paramValues.hobbyEnum[N]) }
E. ${hobbies [paramValues.hobbyEnum.get(N)] }
Answer: B

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NO.3 Given:
<%
request.setAttribute ( vals , new String[] { 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 });
request.setAttribute ( index , 2 );
%>
<% - - insert code here - - %>
Which three EL expressions, inserted at line 15, are valid and evaluate to 3 ? (Choose three)
A. ${vals.2}
B. ${vals [ 2 ] }
C. ${vals.index}
D. ${vals[index] }
E. ${vals} [index]
F. ${vals. (vals.index) }
G. ${vals [vals[index-1]] }
Answer: B,D,G

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NO.4 A web application allows the HTML title banner to be set using a context initialization parameter called
titlestr.
Which two properly set the title in the scenario.? (Choose two)
A. <title> $ {titlestr} </title>
B. <title> $ {initparam.titlestr}</title>
C. <title> $ {param [0]. titlestr} </title>
D. <title> $ {paramValues.titleStr} </title>
E. <title> $ {initParam [ titleStr ] } </title>
F. <title> $ {servletParams.titleStr} </title>
G. <title> $ {request.get ( titleStr ) } </title>
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 Given: Which three EL expressions, inserted at line 16, are valid and evaluate to d ? (Choose three)
A. ${map.c}
B. ${map.[c]}
C. ${map.[ c ]}
D. ${map.map.b}
E. ${map.[map.b]}
F. ${map. (map.b)}
Answer: A,C,E

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Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle User Productivity Kit 11 Technical Consultant Essentials Exam)
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Total Q&A: 115 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 You are asked to attend a presales call to support your field account representative with a sale of
UPK.The account representative has asked you to participate in the meeting because the client has
questions about deploying In-Application Support using the SmartHelp browser add-in option in UPK.
The client wants to know what is required to deploy SmartHelp to their user community.
Identify the best response.
A.SmartHelp is deployed from a web server by having the user access setup file in the playerpackage
directory.Users installing SmartHelp must have admin privileges and configure the browsers for ActiveX
controls.
B.SmartHelp is deployed to the user community by installing the UPK single-user option on the end user's
desktop and configuring the browser for ActiveX controls.
C.The SmartHelp browser add-in is deployed using the in-application support configuration utility to push
an ActiveX control to the user population.
D.SmartHelp needs only a web server to run on and is plug-in free.Therefore, it does not require
Installation to deploy it to the user population.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the first step to set up an unattended installation of the Knowledge Center?
A.Run the executable silently.
B.Record the parameter file by using the /r parameter.
C.Log a support ticket.
D.Use a third-party program to record the installation options.
Answer: B

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NO.3 During the installation of 110 PRO, you receive an error message.What is the first task you do when
entering My Oracle Support ?
A.Log a Sev 1 Service request.
B.Look in the Knowledge base for known issues.
C.Look in patches and updates to see if there is a patch to download to resolve the issue.
D.Create a forum post asking other clients and support representatives for clues or steps to be taken to
resolve the issue.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Identify three compatible file formats that can be used when updating or customizing your logo in UPK.
A.JPG
B.PPT
C.TIF
D.BMP
E.EXE
F.PDF
G.HTML
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 Your client needs to reclaim space on their server.To reclaim the space, they want to purge the deleted
documents found in the library.Your client expressed concern that some of the documents may still be
referenced by other documents in the library.These documents may need to be recovered in the future.
Which action do you need to take to purge only the documents that are no longer being used?
A.Open the Related Documents pane from the View menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no links in, as displayed in the lower panel.
B.Open the Related Documents pane from the View menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no links to, as displayed in the upper panel.
C.Open the Brokenlinks panefrom the View Menu.Scroll through the documents in the Deleted
documents view, purging only those with no broken links in.
D.Open the Lost Document view.Because this shows only the document with no links in, you can purge all
deleted files from view.
E.Select all files in the deleted Document view and purge them, because those documents that are linked
to by nondeleted documents will be purged.
Answer: A

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NO.6 You can deploy your UPK content by placing the Player package on a web server and making it
available to your users.You do this by copying the contents of the Player Package folder in the published
content.Then you will need to create a link to two files.
Identify the two files.
A.play.exe
B.index.html
C.default.htm
D.tocx.html
E.kp.html
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Identify three statements that are true about the Installation of service pack updates.
A.You can install these updates without having to reinstall the Developer.
B.If both UPK and Knowledge Center need to be updated, you must run the installer twice.
C.As part of the service pack, you must reinstall the UPK Developer.
D.After installing a service pack for the Developer, you should update each Developer Library with the
appropriate service pack documents.
E.Service packs will run automatically and you do not need to worry about updating your toolset.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 Your client has deployed the UPK Developer on a Citrix server, so content authors can access it remotely
in Citrix seamless windows.The target application was also installed on the same server.The authors are
unable to record content.
Choose three actions that you would take to help discover the problem.
A.Ensure that the "Time to hide recorder window before screen capture" setting in the Options dialog box
is Increased to at least three seconds.
B.Ensure that the target application (the web browser for web applications) runs in the same Citrix
session as the Developer.
C.Ensure that keyboard shortcuts are not recorded automatically.
D.Ensure that the screen shot capture key is changed from the default.
E.Ensure that the sound is correctly set up in Citrix.
Answer: B,D,E Explanation: Remote and Virtual Environments The Developer can operate in remote and
virtual environments such as Citrix and VMware.The following are known issues when operating the
Developer in these environments:
Citrix: *(B)When recording a target application running in a Citrix session, then Developer must be
running in the same Citrix session.
*(E)Sound output will likely be choppy.
* (D)Citrix does not pass the [PrintScreen] key to applications running in seamless windows.The
Developer uses the [PrintScreen] key as the default key for recording topics.Therefore, the Recorder will
not properly recognize the [PrintScreen] key in a Citrix seamless window.The recording key can be
changed in the Options dialog box in the Developer.
Reference: OracleUser Productivity Kit, Installation And Administration Release 11.0,Remote and Virtual
Environments

NO.9 You maintain a single UPK Developer Library that includes content for the entire organization.You
have created an outline that includes all of the content for the current project.However, some of the
content is sensitive and should be visible only to the Human Resources group.
Which process enables you to maintain this library of content and deliver it to the organization without
exposing the sensitive content to the entire organization?
A.Duplicate the outline and remove the Human Resources topics from the duplicate.Deliver the full outline
to the Human Resources group and the duplicate outline to the entire organization.
B.Create a new outline and link all of the existing modules with the exception of the Human Resources
module.Deliver the full outline to the Human Resources group and the smaller outline to the entire
organization.
C.Create a Role named "Sensitive." Add this Role to all of the Human Resources content.Publish the
outline and use Roles to filter the content appropriately based on the user's role.
D.Create a State named Human Resources" Add this State to the Human Resources content.Use
"Publish by State" to publish one outline with and one outline without the Human Resources State.
Answer: A

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NO.10 UPK Developer requires Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5.Some of the machines in the organization
where Developer will be installed already have .NET Framework 3.5 installed, but most do
not.Organizational policy dictates that ALL of the machines where Developer will be installed DO NOT
have access to the internet for security reasons.The UPK installer comes packaged with a "bootstrap"
installer for .NET Framework 3.5, which connects to the Internet to install .NET Framework 3.5 from there.
Identify the method that would ensure that UPK Developer is installed securely with its .NET Framework
3.5 requirement.
A.Temporarily allow all machines access to the Internet during the duration of the distribution of the
installation, so that the "bootstrap" installer can connect properly.
B.Embed the full .NET Framework 3.5 installer package within the UPK installer, allowing the UPK
installer to use that package Instead of "bootstrap."
C.Ensure force installation of .NET Framework 3.5 on ALL machines before the installation of UPK
Developer.
D.Install only to the machines with .NET Framework 3.5 already installed; delay installation on other
machines until they have been updated with .NET Framework 3.5.
Answer: B

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NO.11 UPK supported languages are grouped by the Tier Structure, Tier 1 and Tier 2.Which of the following is
not translated if it is a Tier 2 language?
A.Player Interface
B.Developer
C.Default and Microsoft template Text
D.Static text in Document publishing formats
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following is required to enable end-user access of UPK-generated content-sensitive help
in an application using the UPK Help Integration method?
A.The application administrator must manually map context IDs from each page to the appropriate URLs
for help.
B.The application administrator must make minor configuration changes to the application.
C.The application developer must write custom code to enable the help system to launch nonapplication
help files.
D.The application administrator must use the UPK Developer ¯ s C on t ex t Ed it o r t o m ap t he app li ca ti on
context.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are the minimum permissions needed to run the install scripts?
A.DB_Accessadmin, DB_Owner
B.DataReader, DataWriter, DB_Owner
C.DataReader, DataWriter
D.DB_Accessadmin
E.DB_Owner
Answer: D

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NO.14 A content author requests your help.
The UPK Developer does not correctly recognize objects and action areas while recording a target
application.The author provides you with a sample topic to review.You notice that the target application
appears in a VMware Player virtual machine window in the screenshots.The action areas cover the entire
virtual machine window, and the objects in the target application cannot be recognized.
How can you fix this problem?
A.The author should disable automatic recording, because it degrades object recognition when used with
a virtualization software.
B.The author should maximize the VMware Player window during recording so that the UPK Developer
can recognize the objects in the application.
C.The UPK Developer should be installed in the virtual machine, and the target application should be
recorded inside the virtual machine.
D.Exact Match is disabled by default for VMware Player in "Target Application Configuration" in the
Options dialog box.This setting must be enabled.
Answer: C

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NO.15 A UPK content author has a single-user installation of UPK 3.6.1 on his or her computer.The author
would like to keep this installation on his or her machine, but also wants to Install the single user of UPK
11.0.
Identify the process that enables this.
A.The content author needs to create an .odarc file of all the content he or she wants to keep from the
3.6.1 single-user Installation, and then uninstall 3.6.1.After 3.6.1 is uninstalled, the author can install
11.0.Two different versions of UPK single user cannot be installed on one computer at the same time.
B.The content author can run the UPK 11.0 setup and install UPK 11.0 in a folder structure that is different
from where the UPK 3.6.1 is installed.Both versions of the developer can be launched independently.
C.The content author can run the UPK 11.0 setup and Install UPK 11.0 in the same folder structure as the
3.6.1 Installation.This will upgrade the 3.6.1 installation to version 11.0.Two different versions of UPK
single user cannot be installed on one computer at the same time.
D.The content author can run the UPK 11.0 setup and install UPK 11.0 in the same folder structure as the
3.6.1 installation.Because the cache locations of 11.0 and 3.6.1 are different, the two versions of the UPK
can be launched independently.
Answer: B

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NO.16 You have defined a number of customizations for the Knowledge Center user interface.However, when
you test them, the customizations are not displayed.You have verified that the modified files have all been
placed in the proper directories.
What might be the reason your customizations are not appearing?
A.The local browser cache on the client system accessing the Knowledge Center must be cleared for the
customizations to appear.
B.You may be using an unsupported browser.Test your customizations in Internet Explorer version 8 or 9.
C.You may not have restarted the Web services on the Knowledge Center server.This will reload the.lng
and .cus files on the web server.
D.It you logged in to the Knowledge Center before you performed your customization, you will need to log
in as a new user to see the customizations.
Answer: C

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NO.17 While you are working offline, the training administrator changes the permissions to the folder in which
you have created a new topic.The permissions are changed to "List Only."
What happens when you go online and your library is synchronized with the server?
A.The content administrator is warned automatically and will restore your folder permissions so that your
work is safe.
B.The document will appear in the Lost document view.
C.The permissions for the folder are automatically restored to modify permissions during the
synchronization.
D.I can revert the permissions myself after I receive a system warning.
Answer: B

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NO.18 You are engaged as a UPK administrator and publisher for a customer who is in the process of
upgrading their Oracle EBS application suite to R12.x.The UPK content development team has finished
the first set of topics and asked you to publish the content, so their SMEs can directly access the topic
they are responsible for.The SMEs are busy and do not have time to download Individual topics.
Which method should you choose to publish and distribute the content?
A.Publish the content to the individual topic outputs and host the topics on a web server providing links to
each topic.
B.Publish the content using the Player/LMS output and distribute the player package folder to each SME.
C.Publish the content using the Player/LMS output and host the content on a web server and provide the
SMEs with a link to the play.exe file.
D.Publish the content using the Player/LMS output and host the content on a web server and provide
content developers a link tokp.html.
Answer: B

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NO.19 A content administrator has asked you to troubleshoot a multi-user UPK Installation: the authors unable
to connect to the server.The administrator sent you the following message from a Windows event log:
The current identity (NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE) does not have write access to
"C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET \Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files'.
Where can you fix this permission problem?
A.On the Oracle database server
B.On the affected client workstations
C.In the UPK library
D.On the application server
Answer: D

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NO.20 Identify two true statements about the installation of the Knowledge Center User Import Utility.
A.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed only before the Knowledge Center Is
installed.
B.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed on the same server as the Knowledge
Center.
C.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed on any workstation that can connect to the
Knowledge Center.
D.The Knowledge Center User Import Utility can be installed only in the Knowledge Center application
root directory.
Answer: B,C

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NO.1 Which two invoice actions are NOT allowed if prepayments have been applied to an invoice?
A. Cancel an invoice.
B. Reverse an invoice distribution.
C. Modify an invoice distribution.
D. Add an invoice line.
E. Modify the accounting information.
Answer: A,C

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A. The prepayment amount available for application is reduced.
B. The unpaid invoice amount is reduced by the amount of the prepayment application.
C. The unpaid invoice amount is not affected by the prepayment application.
D. The invoice is updated to reflect the amount paid by prepayment in the Installments tab.
E. The prepayment amount paid is NOT updated In the Installment tab of invoice.
Answer: A,B,E

Oracle practice test   1z0-507   1z0-507   1z0-507

NO.3 Which two statements are true about the Invoice Requiring Attention section of the invoice
Dashboard?
A. displays links to all prepayment type invoices that have NOT been fully applied
B. lists invoices entered or imported in the past seven days that are NOT yet accounted or
accounted for in draft only
C. displays Invoices in the system that are waiting for approval*
D. displays invoices rejected in the approval process along with the reason for rejection
E. displays all scanned invoices through the Integrated imaging solution that have NOT yet had
accounts Payables invoices created
Answer: C,D

Oracle   1z0-507   1z0-507   1z0-507   1z0-507

NO.4 Which three options are used to sort the Unaccounted Transaction Report?
A. Transaction Type
B. Transaction Source
C. Transaction Currency
D. Transaction Number
E. Transaction Date
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 What are the three sections in the Payables Key Indicators Report?
A. Recent Activity
B. Current Activity
C. Invoice Activity
D. Payment Activity
E. State of the Application
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 What is the invoice type of an unmatched Invoice created in the Supplier Portal?
A. Standard invoice request
B. Standard
C. Credit memo
D. Payment request
E. Credit memo invoice request
Answer: A

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NO.7 Identify three invoice options that can be configured on the Manage Invoice Options page for
Self-
Service Invoices.
A. Limit the invoice to single purchase order.
B. Require validation before approval.
C. Allow invoice backdating.
D. Allow unit price change for quantity based matches.
E. Requireinvoice grouping.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Which statement is correct if the payment terms entered in the invoice differ from the
payment
terms on the purchase order?
A. The payment term of the purchase order overrides the invoice payment term.
B. The payment term of the invoice overrides the purchase order payment term.
C. The user needs to specify which payment term will be used.
D. The user needs to manually change the payment term on the invoice to make it the same as
the purchase order payment term.
E. The purchase order payment term can NOT be overridden.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 1Z0-597
Exam Name: Oracle (SPARC T4-Based Server Installation Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 89 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Activating Auto Service Request (ASR) Assets______.
A. is done on the Asset only
B. is done on both the Asset and the ASR Manager system
C. is done on the ASR Manager system only
D. is done on My Oracle Support only
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two tasks are required to install and configure Oracle VM Server for SPARC
Management
Information Base (MIB) software?
A. Install Oracle VM Server for SPARC MIB software on the primary and guest domains
B. Install Oracle VM Sever for SPARC MIB software on the primary domain only
C. Load the Oracle VM Server for SPARC MIB module into the Oracle Solaris SMA
D. Load the Oracle VM Server for SPARC MIB module into the Oracle Solaris FMA
Answer: BC

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NO.3 What is the main objective of having Enterprise Installation Standards (EIS)?
A. To create a framework for tracking improperly installed systems
B. To produce consistent, high-quality installations
C. To produce systems optimized for Oracle software deployment
D. To create a framework for tracking properly installed systems
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is out-of-order execution?
A. A feature of certain processors, where instructions are processed based on the availability of data
B. A feature of certain multicore processors, where a core can be given processing priority over
other
cores
C. A memory architecture feature, where specific data can be delivered to processors at the fastest
possible rate
D. A feature of certain operating systems, where programs are executed based on the availability of
data
Answer: A

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NO.5 dentify the three ways that integrated, no-chip networking improves network performance.
A. Eliminates I/O protocol translation inefficiencies
B. Reduces memory latency
C. Eliminates the need for multiple DMA (direct memory access) engines
D. Provides higher memory bandwidth
Answer: ABC

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Exam Code: 1Z0-466
Exam Name: Oracle (Project Lifecycle Management Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Select the three key project roles as prescribed by OUM Manage.
A. Stakeholder
B. Change Control Board
C. Issue Review Board
D. Project Team
E. Testing Committee
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
A:Project managers use OUM to make sure they and their stakeholders develop a shared
understanding of what is needed, choose an appropriate architecture, and transfer the ownership of
the end-product to the stakeholders.
B:CCB(Change Control Board)is a review committee that discusses and approves requests for
changes to On Demand customer system configurations. The change requests are fulfilled in the
following ways:
A work guideline is generated by engineering for operations to use and implement.
The changes are included in Oracle Certified Configurations.
D:Project teams to take advantage of this experience by

NO.2 Which is the type of closure described as the mechanical an analytical step associated with the
closure of a project or phase?
A. Contractual
B. Typical
C. Intra-business
D. Conventional
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is not true about planning in OUM?
A. OUM has been developed with the intent that the approach for a given project be built up from a
core set of activities.
B. Projects should be tailored down from the full OUM work breakdown structures.
C. OUM takes an iterative and incremental approach to planning a project.
D. Tasks within OUM are considered place holders for work.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Not A:OUM is designed to support a broad range of project types. As such, it must be
flexible andscalable. The appropriate point of balance for a given project will vary based on a
number of project risk and scale factors. The method has been developed with the intent that the
approach for a given project be "built up" from a core set of activities to implement an appropriate
level of discipline, rather than "tailored down".
Not C:OUM recognizes the advantages of an iterative and incremental approach to development
and deployment of information systems. Any of the tasks within OUM may be iterated. Whether or
not to iterate, as well as the number of iterations, varies. Tasks may be iterated to increase quality of
the work products to a desired level, to add sufficient level of detail, or to refine and expand the
work products on the basis of user feedback.

NO.4 According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the definition of a project?
A. A sequence of tasks with a beginning and an end, bound by time, responses, and desired results
B. Anything for which there is an executed contact
C. A sequence of tasks for there is a Statement work
D. A sequence of tasks with a specified end date
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-466   1Z0-466   1Z0-466

NO.5 Which is true about OUM Manage?
A. It emphasizes clearly documenting the scope of the project and the exact procedures to
implement changes to this scope.
B. It is not possible to control the project timeline without a detailed project plan.
C. It is necessary to only document the items in the scope.
D. If the project sponsor requires a functional change, the project team must comply with the
request.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z0-466   1Z0-466 certification training
Explanation:
The Manage focus area is organized into 13 processes: Bid Transition (A)Scope Management
Financial Management
Work Management Risk Management Issue and Problem Management Staff Management
Communication Management Quality Management Configuration Management Infrastructure
Management Procurement Management Organizational Change Management
Collectively, these processes form a comprehensive set of tasks required to manage Oracle-based
development and implementation projects. Every project includes most, if not all, of these
processes, whether they are the responsibility of a consulting organization, a client organization, or
a third party.

NO.6 At the end of iteration phase, during Project Execution and Control, which three key tasks
should be conducted?
A. QM.050 Perform Quality Assurance
B. WM.050 ManageApprovals
C. CMM.030 Manage Project Team Communication
D. PKM.020 Conduct Baseline Risk Assessment
E. SM.060 Close Scope management
F. PKM.060 Conduct Post-Production Risk Assessment
G. OCHM.040 Establish Follow-Up process
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 What describes the nature of the activities within the Project Execution and Control phase?
A. They are dependent upon one another.
B. They are dependent upon earned value.
C. They are ongoing.
D. They are grouped according to priority.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is not true about risk management in OUM Manage?
A. The project manager should regularly conduct risk assessments.
B. Risks become even more critical during the Project Execution and Control Phase.
C. Particular attention should be paid to risks prior to production cutover.
D. If a baseline risk assessment is done during the Project Startup phase, there are no further risk
assessment required on the project.
Answer: D

Oracle test answers   1Z0-466   1Z0-466

NO.9 Tasks in the Project Execution and Control phase are ongoing. How often they are executed?
A. In each iteration
B. Three times
C. Five times
D. At the beginning of each week
E. As needed
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z1-465
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle RightNow CX Cloud Service 2012 Essentials)
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Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Identify the seven data types that are available as custom fields.
A. Text Area
B. Integer
C. Date Field
D. Currency
E. Date/Time
F. Text Field
G. Yes/No
H. Menu
I. Float
J. Multi Select Menu
Answer: B,C,D,E,F,G,I

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NO.2 Identify the four guidelines that are relevant with regard to web accessibility.
A. Support increased text sizes.
B. Ensure color alone is not used to convey content.
C. Avoid background sound.
D. Ensure no underlined content exists.
E. Provide multiple methods for finding content.
F. Ensure all alternate text is unused.
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.3 Identify the three options available on the deployment screen in customer portal.
A. Rollback
B. Stage
C. Develop
D. Production
E. Promote
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.4 When an incident is opened, your customer would like to have different workspaces open
based on the six products that can be selected when an incident is submitted from the Ask A
Question customer portal page.
When designing the workflow used to complete this requirement, which three elements are
necessary?
A. Entry Point
B. Load
C. Set Fields
D. Decision
E. Workspace
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 Your customer has performed a search on the knowledgebase and has stated that they are
getting strange results. Every time they search for the word "widget" the correct answer appears as
the 10th answer on the search results and not at the top of the first page.
How can you increase the value of the word "widget" In the knowledgebase search results?
A. Assign all products and categories to the knowledgebase answer.
B. Set the display position to "Fix at top."
C. Set the display position to "Place at top."
D. Add the search term to the keyword field of the knowledgebase answer.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Not B: would ensure that widget would always be at the top over every list, but the value
of the word would not be affected.

NO.6 Your customer has asked you to create a report that shows all incidents opened within the
past month.
The report should show the following columns:
-Numberofincidents opened inthepast month
-Numberofincidents opened in the pastweek
-Numberofincidents openedin the pastday
Which two functions are needed in the expressions to create the three columns?
A. NVL
B. AVG
C. IF
D. DECODE
E. SUM
Answer: C,E

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Explanation:
Incorrect:
Not A:In Oracle/PLSQL, the NVL function lets you substitute a value when a null value is
encountered.
Not D:DECODEcomparesexprto eachsearchvalue one by one. Ifexpris equal to asearch, then Oracle
Database returns the correspondingresult. If no match is found, then Oracle returnsdefault.
If default is omitted, then Oracle returns null.

NO.7 You customer has added a new interface and requests that you set up three navigation sets
and associate them with three profiles.
You log in with your original credentials and add the navigation sets.
When you edit the profile and select the dropdown for the new navigation set you don't see the
navigation sets you just added.
Why can't you see the navigation set that should be displayed?
A. The profile doesn't have permission to the new interface.
B. You forgot to set the permission in the navigation set for the new interface.
C. The interface was not installed correctly.
D. You added the navigation set in the wrong interface.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
Note:
*Navigation sets and custom workspaces are associated with profiles. A Profile has to have a Default
Navigation Set.
*The following items must be created before adding profiles.
Navigation sets. Profiles without navigation sets do not allow access to reports and other
components Custom workspaces (optional). If you use custom workspaces, we recommend creating
them before creating profiles so you can assign workspaces to specific profiles.
*The configuration tasks required when starting to use RightNow CX are:
Create Navigation Set
Create Workspace (optional)
Create Profile (associate Navigation Set and Workspace with the Profile)

NO.8 Your customer has requested their salesman to update record in this custom object.
What two settings in the "Salesmen" profile have to be updated to allow them access?
A. Contacts Tab: Select the Edit check box for Sales.
B. Custom Objects Tab: select the Read check box for package Name "CO" and object Name
"Salesman".
C. Service Tab: select the Add/Edit check box for incidents.
D. Custom Objects Tab: select the update check box for package Name "CO" and object name
"Salesmen"
E. Add a workspace for the Salesmen custom object.
F. Sales Tab: select the Edit check box opportunities.
G. Update the workspace for Opportunities.
Answer: D,E

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Exam Name: OMG (Omg-Certified uml professional advanded exam)
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NO.1 How is a power type indicated in a diagram?
A. as a classifier labeled <<powerType>>
B. as an association line labeled <<powerType>>
C. as a generalization set labeled <<powerType>>
D. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by a classifier name
E. as a generalization set labeled with a colon followed by the label <<powerType>>
Answer: D

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NO.2 What does a port specification on a trigger do?
A. send a request to a port
B. create a new port after a classifier has been instantiated
C. restrict the trigger to events arriving through a specific port
D. delay the creation of the parts of an encapsulated classifier until a specified request is received
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which action can continue to be enabled after it executes?
A. ReplyAction
B. ReadExtentAction
C. AcceptEventAction
D. BroadcastSignalAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which action does NOT require classifiers as static inputs?
A. ReadExtentAction
B. CreateObjectAction
C. ReclassifyObjectAction
D. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
E. ReadIsClassifiedObjectAction
Answer: D

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NO.5 What does a collaboration occurrence describe?
A. a particular aspect of a collaboration
B. an object that is an instance of a collaboration
C. a collaboration that contains a set of actual instances (as opposed to roles)
D. the instantiation of the pattern specified by the corresponding collaboration
Answer: D

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NO.6 When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component's namespace?
A. objects are deleted
B. objects continue to exist
C. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained
D. contents of the component's namespace are promoted to its superclass
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the correct interpretation for the multiplicities in the exhibit?
A. each Company has one Job, where each Job has one employee
B. each Job is for one employer and one employee, each Company has any number of employees and
each Person has any number of employers
C. each Person has at most one Job for any number of Company objects and each Company has at most
one Job for any number of Person objects
D. each Job has any number of employers and any number of employees, each Company has any
number of employees, and each Person has any number of employers
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a power type?
A. classifier containing a very large number of instances
B. classifier whose instances are objects of another classifier
C. classifier whose instances are operations of another classifier
D. classifier whose instances are subclasses of another classifier
Answer: D

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NO.9 What happens to the exception from a RaiseExceptionAction when used in a model that has no
exception parameters declared?
A. ignored
B. handled by a default handler
C. appended to an exception log
D. sent to the "ExceptionManager" object
E. propagated to an enclosing protected node, if any
Answer: E

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NO.10 A ReplyAction always follows what action?
A. ReadExtentAction
B. AcceptCallAction
C. AcceptEventAction
D. CreateLinkObjectAction
E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is NOT possible when a classifier receives a request via one of its ports?
A. A new port is created on the classifier.
B. A behavior of the classifier is invoked.
C. The request is forwarded to a part of the classifier.
D. The request does not trigger any behavior and is not forwarded.
E. The port routes the request to one of a number of parts depending on the content of the request.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What does the composite structure notation show in the exhibit?
A. p is a hidden port.
B. p is a behavior port.
C. p is a port providing a system service.
D. p is a port on a part of composite C, which is not shown.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which stereotype is used on a dashed arrow joining an instance value to a constructor?
A. <<new>>
B. <<make>>
C. <<create>>
D. <<construct>>
E. <<initialize>>
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which situations would result in errors when executing a ReclassifyObjectAction on an object?
(Choose two)
A. No new classifiers are supplied.
B. A new classifier is an abstract class.
C. The old and new classifiers are identical.
D. All classifiers are removed from the object.
E. A new classifier already classifies the object.
F. An old classifier does not already classify the object.
Answer: BD

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NO.15 What is wrong with the collaboration occurrence shown in the exhibit?
A. The <<role>> keywords are missing.
B. The <<occurrence>> keyword is missing.
C. Client and Server role names should be underlined.
D. Role bindings should be represented by dashed lines.
E. The collaboration occurrence name should be underlined.
Answer: D

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NO.16 An employee inadvertently removed all of the ownedMembers of the new BoosterMotor component
from his company's development repository. The next day, the manager was unable to find some pieces
of the BoosterMotor component's specification. What pieces could the manager no longer find? (Choose
two)
A. failure mode use cases
B. the component repository
C. test scripts for the rocket sled simulation
D. the launch assembly housing the BoosterMotor
E. the component's isIndirectlyInstantiated attribute
Answer: AC

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NO.17 What characteristics of components best enable them to be used to represent diverse and
"large-scale" aspects of information processing environments?
A. black-box semantics
B. ports, parts, and interfaces
C. duality of association ends and attributes
D. ownership of potentially large numbers of model elements
Answer: D

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NO.18 In the exhibit, how many links are created by default when an instance of A is created?
A. two
B. four
C. eight
D. none
Answer: B

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NO.19 An association class possesses the properties of which elements? (Choose two)
A. class
B. interface
C. constraint
D. expression
E. association
Answer: AE

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NO.20 By what means can a design document be associated with the component it describes? (Choose
three)
A. import
B. inheritance
C. ownership
D. dependency
E. power types
F. association end subsets
Answer: ACD

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Novell 050-650 questions and answers

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Exam Code: 050-650
Exam Name: Novell (Internet Security Management with BorderManager 3.5 Enterprise Edition)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 179 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which statement is true regarding secondary time server types? (Choose two.)
A. They do not participate in voting for time.
B. They must get their time form a primary server.
C. They adjust their time 50% to match the established network time.
D. By default, they use configured lists to direct them to which server to get time.
E. They can get their time form single reference, reference, primary, and secondary servers.
Answer: A,E

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NO.2 What needs to be done to allow servers to find any time server rega******f the tree it's in?
A. Set Directory tree mode to off
B. Set timesync restart flag to on
C. Set Service Advertising Protocol to off
D. Set the default time server type to reference
Answer: A

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NO.3 By default, when is a server *** *not being synchronized to the network?
A. When it's more than one seconds different than the network time.
B. When it's more than two seconds different than the network time.
C. When it's more than three seconds different than the
D. When it's more than four seconds different than the network time.
E. When it's more than five seconds different than the network time.
Answer: B

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NO.4 In a time provider group, which server carries the *** ***voting on a time?
A. Primary
B. Reference
C. Secondary
D. Single reference
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement about the BorderManager 3.5 installation process is true?
A. NETBASIC.NLM must be loaded on the server prior to installation.
B. You must configure your servers and clients to use TCP/IP prior to installation.
C. Installation can be done remotely using RCONSOLE with the CD mounted on your local machine.
D. You can install on a remote server If you copy the contents of the CD to a mounted volume on that
server.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You have been asked to troubleshoot your client's issue of timeout synchronized throughout the
network. Your client has five servers in the tree located at their headquarters. The time configuration for
each server is as follows. Time server type Configured lists Serv1 Single reference off Serv2 Primary off
Serv3 Secondary off Serv4 Secondary off Serv5 Secondary off What is preventing time from being
synchronized?
A. There needs to be more than one primary time ***
B. Configured Lists needs to be turned on *** **
C. Configured Lists needs to be turned on *** ** secondary servers.
D. A single reference time server cannot co-exist on the primary time server.
E. Configured Lists needs to be turned **** primary and single reference server.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Your company has six NetWare 5 servers (Serv1, Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5 and Serv6. One use
NetWare 3.12 (Serv7) server. This tree has only one existing partition, the [Root] partition. The servers
were installed in the following order Serv1, Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5, and Serv6. You have just finished
upgrading Serv7 to NetWare 5. Which servers hold a replica of the [Root] partition? (Choose four.)
A. Serv1
B. Serv2
C. Serv3
D. Serv4
E. Serv5
F. Serv6
G. Serv7
Answer: A,B,C,G

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NO.8 In an IPX environment, which methods do servers use to find each other to synchronization? (Choose
two.)
A. TCP/IP
B. NTP.NLM
C. Configured lists
D. Service Advertising Protocol (SAP)
E. NetWare Link Services Protocol (NLSP)
Answer: C,D

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NO.9 What is the message content of a type 31CMP packet?
A. Echo Reply
B. Time Exceeded
C. Parameter Problem
D. Address Mask Reply
E. Destination Unreachable
Answer: E

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NO.10 Which tasks are involved in defining a security policy? (Choose 3)
A. Limit access
B. Identify the threats
C. Compare software solutions
D. Identify network resources
E. Analyze organizational performance
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.11 Which tasks are involved in defining a security policy? (Choose 3)
A. Impalement a VPN
B. Identify the threats
C. Compare software solutions
D. Identify network resources
E. Identify unauthorized access
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.12 What system is used to adjust different time zones to get an equivalent time for time synchronization?
A. Time stamps
B. Standard time
C. Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)
D. Daylight saving time offset
E. Universal Time Coordinated (UTC)
Answer: E

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NO.13 CORRECT TEXT
Exhibit
Given the
information in the graphic, how many proxy access requests have been satisfied by requesting the
information from the source web server? (Enter the number.)
Answer: 3

NO.14 You have installed the first NetWare 5 server for your company and accepted all default settings. What
type of time server is the server?
A. Primary
B. Reference
C. Secondary
D. Single reference
E. Secondary reference
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which utilities allow you to change the time synchronization type for a server? (Choose two.)
A. MONITOR.NLM
B. NDS Manager
C. DSREPAIR.NLM
D. NetWare Administrator
E. The SET parameters at the server console
Answer: A

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NO.16 By default, if a NetWare server is synchronization on the network, how frequently does it check for time?
A. Every 3 minutes
B. Every 5 minutes
C. Every 10 minutes
D. Every 15 minutes
E. Every 20 minutes
Answer: C

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NO.17 What are benefits of using BorderManager proxy acceleration? (Choose 2.)
A. Web server IP addresses are kept hidden from the Internet
B. Workstation IP addresses are kept hidden from the Internet
C. Cached web pages are delivered to your internal users 60% faster
D. Workstations can access the Internet without having full IP support installed
E. On proxy server can act as several web servers *** ** fault to tolerance
Answer: A,E

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NO.18 Which time server***** is the default configuration for the second or subsequent servers installed in the
tree?
A. Master
B. Primary
C. Reference
D. Secondary
E. Single reference
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which file can you view to identify the default filter exceptions to the BorderManger filters?
A. FILE.TXT
B. ALLFILT.TXT
C. FILTEXCP.TXT
D. The file specified by the user when filters are saved to a text file.
Answer: D

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NO.20 .You are the NDS expert in your company. You are getting ready to merge the EMA_2 tree into the
EMA tree. You are using Servl from the EMA_2 tree *** from the EMA tree to perform the merge. The
following is the partition and replica listing for each tree. EMA_2 [Root] EMA [Root] Serv1 Master Serv2
Read/write Serv3 Read/write Serv4 Master Serv5 Read/write Serv6 Read/write Which Server will get a
replica of the [Root] partition after the merge? (Choose four.)
A. Serv1
B. Serv2
C. Serv3
D. Serv4
E. Serv5
F. Serv6
Answer: A,D,E,F

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NO.21 If a secondary time server is not synchronized to a single reference time server *** percentage of the
time difference does the secondary time server make during the next polling process?
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%
Answer: E

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NO.22 Which time servers participate in voting for the correct time? (Choose two.)
A. Master
B. Primary
C. Reference
D. Single reference
E. Secondary reference
Answer: B,C

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NO.23 Which statement is true about a single reference time server?
A. It gets its time from a reference time server.
B. It does not advertise itself as a time provider.
C. It cannot coexist with primary or other reference servers.
D. It must have another reference or primary server to negotiate time with.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which statement about merging NDS trees is valid?
A. Time does not need to be synchronized for the merge to be successful.
B. All server in the target tree ***** of the target [Root] get removed from the new [Root]'s replica list
C. The server that contained the master replica of the source tree [Root] receives a read/write replica of
the new [Root].
D. All servers in the tree must receive a replica of [Root] of the tree they are in before the merge process
can be started.
Answer: C

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NO.25 You have installed the first four servers in your company's NDS tree. You accepted all time defaults
when installing. What type of time servers exist in your tree?
A. 1 primary and 3 secondaries
B. 1 reference and 3 secondaries
C. 1 single reference and 3 secondaries
D. 1 reference, 2 primaries, and 1 secondary
E. 1 single reference, 1 primary, and 2 secondaries
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which statement about time synchronization is true?
A. Time synchronization is a service that records time changes at the server console.
B. Time synchronization is a service that maintains consistent time throughout the network.
C. Time synchronization is a service that determines the correct time throughout the network.
D. Time synchronization is a service that records changes in time security events throughout the network.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which time server types advertise that they are a time provider? (Choose 3.)
A. Master
B. Primary
C. Reference
D. Secondary
E. Single reference
F. Secondary reference
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.28 Which statements are true regarding NDS rights after merging them? (Choose two.)
A. The trustee list (ACL) of the source tree [Root] is discard.
B. The admin object in the target tree loses all rights to [Root]
C. The source NDS tree user object used in the merge **** granted Supervisor object rights to the entire
new NDS tree.
D. The target server object will be granted rights to ****** of new NDS tree.
Answer: A,C

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NO.29 Which statement is true regarding reference time server?
A. It does not advertise itself *** ** provider.
B. It cannot coexist with other primary time servers.
C. It gets its time from a single *** *** time server.
D. It negotiates time with primary time server, but does not adjust its internal clock.
Answer: D

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NO.30 You are trying to determine if NAT is working. Which server console command to be used to determine
if filters are configured to deny outgoing IP packets?
A. PING
B. TCPCON
C. INETCFG
D. FILTCFG
E. NIASCFG
Answer: D

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